Comed-K 2011 MDS Question paper with Answers

Here is the solved Comed-k 2011 question paper with the correct answers. Almost 30-40% of questions are repeated in every years exam so going through previous papers before the exams will be really helpful.

Comed k 2011 question paper with answers

Comed-k 2012 MDS Solved Question Paper:

Comed-k 2012 MDS question paper

1. Infection from the dangerous area of the face spread through one of the following veins ?

  1. Maxillary
  2. Retromandibular vein
  3. Superficial temporal vein
  4. Opthalmic vein

Ans: 4 – Opthalmic vein

2. All of following canal open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa except ?

  1. Greater palatine canal
  2. Foramen Rotundum
  3. Pterygoid canal
  4. Palatovaginal canal

Ans: 1 – Greater palatine canal

3. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all of these muscles except ?

  1. Styloglossus
  2. Genioglossus
  3. Palatoglossus
  4. Hyoglossus

Ans: 3 – Palatoglossus

4. One of the following is motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis ?

  1. Greater auricular
  2. Lesser occipital
  3. Third occipital
  4. Posterior auricular

Ans: 4 – Posterior auricular

5. Contraction in smooth muscles is initiated when calcium binds to ?

  1. Calbindin
  2. Calmodulin
  3. Troponin
  4. Tropomyosin

Ans: 2 – Calmodulin

6. Daily loss of Iron in a healthy adult per day is ?

  1.  0.06 mg
  2. 0.6 mg
  3. 60 mg
  4. 600 mg

Ans: 2

7. In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the ?

  1. Magnitude of the stimulus
  2. Intracellular potassium concentration
  3. Extracellular sodium concentration
  4. Resting membrane potential

Ans: 3

8. Ultimobronchial body forms ?

  1. C cells of thyroid gland
  2. Principal cells of parathyroid gland
  3. Acidophils of pituitary gland
  4. Pituicytes of pituitary gland

Ans: 1 

9. All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissue Except ?

  1. TSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Estrogen
  4. Epinephrin

Ans: 3

10. Anaphylaxis refers to ?

  1. Severe reaction following re-injection of protein solutions in a sensitized individual
  2. Severe reaction following primary injection of protein solutions
  3. State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
  4. The severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergies

Ans:  1 

11. A positive Chvostek’s sign is suggestive of ?

  1. Hypercalcaemia
  2. Hypocalcaemia
  3. Hyperkalaemia
  4. Acidosis

Ans:  2 

12. Ubiquitin is involved in ?

  1. Intracellular proteolysis
  2. Electron transport chain
  3. Transport of ATP
  4. Protein Folding

Ans: 1

13. Ehrilch Test is done to detect ?

  1. Bilirubin
  2. Urobilinogen
  3. Bile Salts
  4. Protein

Ans: 2

14. Plasma ceruloplasmin is a ?

  1. Alpha 1 globulin
  2. Alpha 2 globulin
  3. Beta 1 globulin
  4. Beta 2 globulin

Ans: 2 

15. The nitrogen content is 50 gms of a typical dietary protein is most likely to be ?

  1. 5 g
  2. 8 g
  3. 10 g
  4. 16 g

Ans: 2 

16. Striae of Retzius ?

  1. Are not found in permanent teeth
  2. Represent the daily growth rate of enamel
  3.  Result from temporary constriction of Tomes process
  4. Have more number of crystals

Ans: 2 

17. In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the decidious teeth are called ?

  1. Volkmann canals
  2. Canals of Hirschfels and Zuckerkandl
  3. Haversian canals
  4. Gubernacular canals

Ans: 3 

18. The cell type of periodontium that plays a role in pathogenesis as well as healing is ?

  1. Epithelial
  2. Langerhans
  3. Fibroblast
  4. Mast cell

Ans: 3 

19. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary Sinus is due to involvement by tumour of ?

  1. Anterior wall of Sinus
  2. Posterior wall of Sinus
  3. Roof of the Sinus
  4. Floor of Sinus

Ans: 4 

20.  Successor of permanent teeth develop from ?

  1. Buccal extension of Dental Lamina
  2. Lingual extension of Dental Lamina
  3. Distal Extension of Dental Lamina
  4. Main or Parent Dental Lamina

Ans: 2 

21. Nerve endings of temporomandibular joint, confined to ligaments associated with the joint ?

  1. Ruffini corpuscles
  2. Pacini corpuscles
  3. Golgi tendon organs
  4. Free nerve endings

Ans: 3

22. The maximum rate of eruption, as the tooth cusps reach the surface epithelium is round (Micro meters/day) ?

  1. 100
  2. 75
  3. 50
  4. 25

Ans: 2

23. The initial B cells of synovial membrane of temporomandibular joint are ?

  1. Fibroblast like
  2. Macrophage like
  3. Lymphocyte like
  4. Plasma like

Ans: 1 

24. Increased levels of Hemoglobin A2 is characteristic of ?

  1.  Sickle cell trait
  2. Thalassaemia minor
  3. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
  4. Thalassaemia

Ans: 2

25. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by defiency of ?

  1. Vit D
  2. Vit B
  3. Vit A
  4. Vit C

Ans: 3

26. Malignant ulcer is differentiated from benign by ?

  1. Heaping up of margins
  2. Fibrous scars radiating from crater
  3. Induration of base
  4. Clean Base

Ans: 1 

27. Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroglobulin ?

  1. It is a specific marker for anaplastic carcinoma
  2. Elevation after complete therapy suggests recurence in well differentiated thyroid malignancies
  3. Preoperation elevation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis
  4. Intraop estimation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis

Ans: 2

28. In Troisers sign the lymph nodes involved involved are ?

  1. Right Axillary nodes
  2. Left Axillary nodes
  3. Right Supraclavicular nodes
  4. Left Supraclavicular nodes

Ans: 4

29. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa ?

  1. Produces heat stable enterotoxin
  2. Causes Shangai fever
  3. Cannot be destroyed at 55 degrees at 1 hour
  4. Does not produce any pigment

Ans: 2

30. Durck granules are seen in ?

  1. Berylliosis
  2. Sarcoidosis
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Malaria

Ans: 4 

31. Injection abscess due to use of contaminated vaccines occur in infections caused by ?

  1. M. Kansasii
  2. M. Ulcerans
  3. M. chelonae
  4. M. Smegmatis

Ans: 3

32. The most frequent non-sporing anaerobic bacteria isolated from clinical specimens is ?

  1. Bacteroides Fragilis
  2. Bacteroides Vulgatus
  3. Prevotella Melaninogenica
  4. Fusobacterium nucleatum

Ans: 1

33. A full course of immunization against tetanus with 3 doses of tetanus toxid, confers immunity for how many years ?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

Ans: 1 

34. Which is a DNA virus ?

  1. Hep A virus
  2. Hep B virus
  3. Hep C virus
  4. Hep D virus

Ans: 2 

35. Among the drugs given below, which is least likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis ?

  1. Isoniazid
  2. Streptomycin
  3. Rifanpicin
  4. Pyrazinamide

Ans: 2 

36.  Which of the following drugs given below does not act by protease inhibition ?

  1. Ritonavir
  2. Squinavir
  3. Nelfnavir
  4. Zanamivir

Ans: 4

37. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Clostridium difficile-induced colotis ?

  1. Gentamicin
  2. Ciprofloxacin
  3. Metronidazole
  4. Linezolid

Ans: 3 

38. During the cell cycle, Colchicine is known to act in ?

  1. G1 phase
  2. S phase
  3. G2 phase
  4. M phase

Ans: 4 

39. Which of the following antitubercular drug is Bacteriostatic ?

  1. INH
  2. Ethambutol
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Streptomycin

Ans: 2 

40.Which among the following is used as an Immunosuppressant ?

  1. Cyclosporine
  2. Cycloserine
  3. Cyclopentolate
  4. Cyclizine

Ans: 1 

41. All of the given drugs are positive inotropes Except ?

  1.  Dopamine
  2. Dobutamine
  3. Digoxin
  4. Doxepin

Ans: 4 

42. Which among the following drugs is not used orally ?

  1. Quinidine
  2. Verapamil
  3. Lignocaine
  4. Phenytoin

Ans: 3 

43. The materials used to outline the area to be soldered in order to restrict the flow of solder is called ?

  1. Antiflux
  2. Flux
  3. Soldering
  4. Welding

Ans: 1

44. ADA specification number for gypsum products are described under ?

  1. 4
  2. 1
  3. 12
  4. 25

Ans: 4

45. Frozen Slab technique is applicable to ?

  1. Zinc Phosphate cement
  2. Glass ionomer cement
  3. Zinc oxide eugenol cement
  4. Resin cement

Ans: 1 

46. pH of which cement remains below 7 even after 1 month after insertion into the cavity ?

  1. GIC
  2. Zinc Phosphate
  3. Resin cement
  4. Silicate cement

Ans: 4

47. Materials that facilitate removal of impression from cast is ?

  1. Rosin
  2. Starch
  3. Sodium chloride
  4. Borates

Ans: 2 

48. For accurate interocclusal records the material of choice is ?

  1. 28-gauge casting wax
  2. ZOE bite registration paste
  3. Elastomeric bite registration material
  4. Base plate wax

Ans: 2 

49. Electralloy RV is alloy of Gold and ?

  1. Carbon
  2. Platinum
  3. Calcium
  4. Palladium

Ans: 3

50. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is ?

  1. Hydrocholoric Acid
  2. Nitric Acid
  3. Sulphuric Acid
  4. Phosphoric Acid

Ans: 1

51. The safest method for soaking dental cast is ?

  1. Placing in saturated solution of calcium sulphate
  2. Placing in water
  3. Placing in saturated solution of sodium chloride
  4. Placing in solution of gypsum slurry

Ans: 1

52. The most practical method for avoiding any possible distortion of the wax pattern is ?

  1. Use of heated instruments during carving of the wax pattern
  2. Invest the wax pattern immediately
  3. Swagging the wax pattern in a closed vessel
  4. Applying finger pressure during cooling of the wax

Ans: 2 

53. Rushton bodies are seen in ?

  1. Calcifying Odontogenic cyst
  2. Gingival cyst of adults
  3. Gingival cyst of newborn
  4. Lateral Periodontal cyst

Ans: 3 

54. Pathogenesis of Diptheria is attributed to ?

  1. Invasion
  2. Endotoxin
  3. Exotoxin
  4. Capsule

Ans: 3 

55. Sarcoidosis is

  1. Uncommon in Afro-Carribean
  2. Less common in smokers
  3. Seen in temprate climate
  4. Single system disorders

Ans: B and C both are correct

56. Kveim-Siltzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of ?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Sarcoidosis
  3. Leprosy
  4. Cat Scratch disease

Ans: 2 

57. Sinusitis may cause referred pain in ?

  1. Max ant teeth
  2. Max post teeth
  3. Mand Ant teeth
  4. Mand post teeth

Ans: 2 

58. Intake of which of the following leads to increased incidence of Dry Socket ?

  1. Antihypertensives
  2. Antiepileptics
  3. Oral Hypoglycemics
  4. Oral Contraceptives

Ans: 4

59. Which among following is not a common feature of trigeminal neuralgia ?

  1. Usually affecting the middle aged and elderly
  2. Sharp stabbing pain lasting for seconds
  3. The most common sites involved are the Mandibular and Maxillary canine areas
  4. Pain usually crossing the midline of the face

Ans: 4

60. Mucocutaneous lesion associated with Neoplasia ?

  1. Phemphigus vegetans
  2. Paraphemphigus
  3. Paraneoplastic Phemphigus
  4. Familial benign Phemphigus

Ans: 3 

61. Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in ?

  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Cancer Chemotherapy
  3. Acute leukaemia
  4. Systemic Lupus erythematosus

Ans: 4

62. Oral ulceration resembling apthae are encountered in ?

  1. Gluten enteropathy
  2. Chronic smokers
  3. Excess of B-complex
  4. Antimalarial medication

Ans: 1

63. Which of these is not a premalignant condition for oral cancers ?

  1. Leukoplakia
  2. Apthous Ulcers
  3. Erythroplakia
  4. Submucous Fibrosis

Ans: 2 

64. Warthin-Finkeldey multinucleated giant cell is diagnostic of ?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Mumps
  3. Measles
  4. Sarcoidosis

Ans: 3 

65. Freys Syndrome is caused due to the injury of ?

  1. Lesser occipital nerve
  2. Auriculotemporal nerve
  3. Supratrochlear nerve
  4. Infraorbital nerve

Ans: 2 

66. Most common Salivary gland tumour arising in the jaw ?

  1. Pleomorphic adenoma
  2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
  3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
  4. Acinic cell carcinoma

Ans: 3 

67. Sorbital acts in the prevention of dental caries by ?

  1. Micro organisms lack the enzymes to metabolize Sorbitol
  2. Lactic acid cannot be produced
  3. Fermentation of Sorbitol doesnot occur
  4. Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate

Ans: 1 

68. Salivary protein which prevents transmission of HIV virus via saliva is ?

  1. Sailoperoxidase
  2. Secretory IgA
  3. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
  4. Histidine rich proteins

Ans: 3 

69. Von Willebrands disease is due to ?

  1. Deficiency of factor X and Factor IV
  2.  Deficiency of factor XII and Factor IX
  3. Deficiency of factor VIII and decreased platelet adhesion
  4. Deficiency of factor X and Factor V

Ans: 3

70. Neonatal teeth erupt ?

  1. At birth
  2. In first 30 days
  3. In first week
  4. In first 2 weeks

Ans: 2

71. A 55 yr old female patient who is a denture wearer reported to the dentist. Complains of pain in denture bearing area, on examination inflammation of the denture bearing area which is erythematous in nature more diffuse involving entire denture bearing area, we call this condition as ?

  1. Epulis Fissuratum
  2. Traumatic Ulcers
  3. Denture irritational hyperplasia
  4. Denture stomatitis

Ans: 4

72. Among the different types of denture stomatitis diagnosis of candida associated denture stomatitis is confirmed based on previous question ?

  1. Based on clinical features
  2. Based on intensity of erythematous lesion
  3. By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae in a direct smear or isolation of candida in high numbers
  4. By examining the existing dentures

Ans: 3

73. One of the systemic factors predisposing to candida associated denture stomatitis (irt above question) ?

  1. Nutritional deficiencies
  2. Hypertension
  3. HIV
  4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosis

Ans: 1

74. In the management of candida denture stomatitis the following is used  ?

  1. 2% Chlorhexidine
  2. Betadine
  3. Gentian Violet
  4. Local therapy with nystatin and amphotericin B

Ans: 4 

75. Candida denture stomatitis is ?

  1. Inherited autosomal dominant
  2. Autosomal recessive disorder
  3. X-linked disease
  4. A syndrome of unknown cause

Ans: 1

76.  Multiple impacted teeth are seen in Gardners syndrome may also be seen in ?

  1. Tricho dento osseous syndrome
  2. Heriditiary intestinal polyposis
  3. Cowdens syndrome
  4. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome

Ans: 1

77. A 10 year old patient diagnosed with Downs Syndrome having a mosiacism variety. Which type of head shape is commonly seen ?

  1. Oligocephaly
  2. Dolicocephaly
  3. Brachycephaly
  4. Mesiocephaly

Ans: 3

78. Often IQ of the Downs syndrome patient will be  ?

  1. 140-170
  2. 120-139
  3. 110-119
  4. 25-50

Ans: 4

79. Following dental problems are associated with Downs syndrome ?

Ans: Delayed Shedding of Decidious teeth

80. Downs syndrome is associated with ?

Ans: Congenital Heart lesions

81. A 25 yr old patient reports of a bony bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible and mild parasthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multilocular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation ?

  1. Excisional Biopsy
  2. Aspiration Cytology
  3. CT Scan
  4. PET bone scan

Ans: 2

82. A dirty white aspirate with a protein estimation of <4gm% is suggestive of irt to the above question ?

Ans: OKC

83. OKC is noted for its ?

Ans: Daughter cysts and high rate or Recurrence

84. Management of OKC involves ?

Ans: Enucleation with peripheral ostectomy

85. A 40 year old woman reports with complaint of burning sensation in mouth. clinical examination reveals lesions containing of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips and gingiva bilaterally. an incisional biopsy is suggestive of Lichen Planus. the whitish striations in Lichen Planus are called ?

  1. Striae of Retzius
  2. Wickhams Striae
  3. Stepladder striations
  4. Linea Alba buccalis

Ans: 2 

86. The following are different clinical forms of LP except ?

  1. Atrophic
  2. Hypertrophic
  3. Erosive
  4. Verrucous

Ans: 4

87. One of the following syndrome is associated with lichen planus ?

Ans: GRINSPAN Syndrome

88. Min amount of tooth demineralization required for radiographic detection of dental caries is ?

  1. 20 %
  2. 40 %
  3. 60 %
  4. 80 %

Ans: 2 

89. Compared with Ca Tungstate screens, rare earth screens decrease patient exposure by ?

  1. 15%
  2. 35%
  3.  55%
  4. 75%

Ans: 3 

90. Determinestic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response is ?

  1. Propotional to the dose
  2. Determined by the operator
  3. Depends on the composition of Tissue
  4. Depends on volume of exposed tissue

Ans: 1

91. Multiple pulp stones are seen in which Syndrome?

  1. Downs
  2. Ehlar Danlos
  3. Marfans
  4. Aperts

Ans:  2 

92. Digital image in computerized radiography is made up of ?

  1. Pixels
  2. CCD
  3. CMOS
  4. Silver Halide Crystals

Ans: 1

93. Following organ is LEAST radiosensitive to the effects of radiation ?

  1. Testis
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Muscle
  4. Intestine

Ans: 3 

94. Sharpened pencil appearance of mandibular condyle radiographically indicates ?

  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Infectious arthritis
  4. Juvenile Arthosis

Ans: 3

95. Which of the following interactions does not cause film fog ?

  1. Coherent scattering
  2. Transient scattering
  3. Photoelectric absorption
  4. Compton Scattering

Ans: 3 

96.  Cervical Burnout is a phenomenon caused by decreased X-ray absorption in region of ?

  1. Teeth with proximal caries
  2. Normal teeth
  3. Teeth with root caries
  4. Hypoplastic teeth

Ans: 2 

97. A 35 yr old man with Le fort 3 # complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE # as well. What clinical features suggest that the discharge is CSF leak ?

  1. Continuous discharge
  2. Tramline or Halo rings
  3. Discharge stops on pressure
  4. Presence of Transferrin Beta

Ans: 2 

98. Which investigation is most conformatory for detecting CSF leak ?

  1. CT
  2. MRI
  3. Presence of glucose influid
  4. Presence of Betal Transferrin

Ans: 4 

99. The most common complication of CSF Rhinorrhea is ?

  1. Brain herniation
  2. Blindness
  3. Ascending meningitis
  4. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Ans: 3 

100. Aspirate which is creamy white viscoid with the values of total protein less than 5.0 grams/100 ml is suggestive of  ?

  1. Infected Cyst
  2. Dentigerous cyst
  3. OKC
  4. Ranula

Ans: 3

101. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process is innervated by the buccal nerve and ? 

  1.  Sup alveolar nerve
  2. Mental nerve
  3. Inf alveolar nerve
  4. Greater palatine nerve

Ans: 1

102. A male patient has a pinpoint oro antral communication, the treatment is ?

  1. Berger flap
  2. Palatal flap
  3. Caldwell procedure
  4. None

Ans: 4

103. Cranifacial dysjunction is seen in ?

  1. Lefort 3 fracture
  2. Guerrin’s fracture
  3. High Lefort 1 fracture
  4. None of the above

Ans: 1

104. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen in ?

  1. Post maxi surface
  2. Lat max surface
  3. Intratemporal surface
  4. Pterygopalatine fossa

Ans: 1 

105. A fractured coronoid process of the mandible displaces upwards by the action of which muscle ?

  1. Buccinator
  2. Mylohyoid
  3. Lat pterygoid
  4. Temporalis

Ans: 4  

 106. Among the following pain theories, the most accepted theory is ? 

  1. Specific theory
  2. Pattern theory
  3. Gate control theory
  4. Calcium displacement theory

Ans: 3

107. All of the following nerves are encountered during submandibular gland resection except ?

  1. Lingual 
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Accessory
  4. Marginal mandibular

Ans: 3

108. Non myelinated axons differ from myelinated ones in that they ?

  1. More exitable
  2. Lack nodes of ranvier
  3. Not capable of regeneration
  4. Not associated with Schwann cells

Ans: 3

109. Haversion system (osteons) are found primarly in ?

  1. Spongy bone
  2. Periosteum
  3. Alveolar bone proper
  4. Endosteum

Ans: 3

 

 

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