The Questions from AIIMS May 2011 MDS/Dental Entrance, All the Best for your entrance exams. Follow the question papers and do well in Entrances. As we have seen that previous questions are repeated a lot of times it is sensible to be up to date with the questions and practice them more than once.
For more previous AIIMS papers:
1. Which of the following is the most common impaction of mandibular 3rd molar ?
Ans: 1 – Peterson 3rd ed pg 226
2. In Lingual splaying with Guardsman fracture with ORIF, which is the clinical feature seen ?
- Increased intracanthal distance
- Increased interpupillary distance
- Increases Gonion Gnathion distance
- Increased interangular distance
Ans: 4 – Raymond and Robert Oral and maxillofacial trauma 1st ed Pg no 516
3. In condylar fracture with greater than 5mm overlapping and greater than 37 degrees angulation with fracture segment, what is the line of treatment ?
- Closed reduction and IMF
- Open reduction and IMF
- Soft Diet
- No treatment
Ans: 2 – Maxillofacial surgery by Peter ward booth Pg no 82
4. Nitrous Oxide that is used as anesthetic agent has mechanism of action as ?
- Gasserian ganglion block
- Block peripheral nerves
- Reversible (indirect) depression of CNS
- Block Neural trunk
5. When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, what variable should be considered ?
- Position of strike
- Area of strike
- Angulation of strike
- Location of strike
6. The treatment of choice in comminuted fracture of mandible is ?
- 2.5 mm plate
- 1.5 mm plate
- Dynamic compression plate with eccentric holes
- Reconstruction plates with central holes
7. In condylar fracture and bone plate synthesis to counteract the dynamic tension and compression zones, the most acceptable place for plating is ?
- One plate fixed laterally in neck of condyle
- One plate in anterior and One plate in posterior border of mandible
- One plate on posterior border only
- One plate on Anterior border only
8. Maximum complications seen in which of the following fractures ?
- Body fracture
- Angle fracture
- Condylar fracture
- Symphyseal fracture
9. Transverse symphyseal fracture of mandible can be managed by all of the following except ?
- Lag screws
- 2mm compression plates
- 2.5mm compression plates
- 1.5mm single miniplate
10. In fracture of Atrophic mandible with bone loss, what is the best treatment modality ?
- Bone grafting and load bearing
- Bone grafting and load sharing
- Semi rigid fixation
- IMF with open reduction
11. The anesthetic drug injected for paravertebral block is least likely tp diffuse into ?
- Epidural space
- Subarachonoid space
- Intercostal space
- Superior and inferior paravertebral spaces
12. Which of the following is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block ?
- Nasal stuffiness
- Guttmann sign
- Horner’s syndrome
13. Criteria for an ideal anelgesic drug ?
- Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, intermediate duration
- Rapid onset of action, intermediate efficacy, long duration
- Rapid onset of action, high efficacy, long duration
- Intermediate onset of action, high efficacy, intermediate duration
14. Which of the following is associated with etiology of periodontal disease ?
15. Which is not true about Juvenile periodontitis ?
- Rate of bone loss is faster than normal periodotitis
- There is prediliction for female patients
- The inflammatory process starts as bone loss
- Frequently bilateral symmeteical patterns of bone loss occurs
16. The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is ?
- Gram positive aerobic cocci
- Gram positive anaerobic cocci
- Gram negative aerobic rods
- Gram negative anaerobic rods
Ans: 4 – actinomycetmcomitans and capnocytophaga are both gram negative and anaerobic rods
17. Trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect ?
- Periodontal ligament
- Epithelial attachment
18. Which of the following is not used as an abrasive in dentifrices ?
- Calcium carbonate
- Sodium carbonate
19. Tooth brush abrasions are more common on ?
- Mandibular teeth, on the right half of the arch
- Mandibular teeth, on the left half of the arch
- Maxillary teeth, on the right side of the arch
- Maxillary teeth, on the left side of the arch
20. Which dentifrices should be used for periodontal patients ?
- Tooth powders with high abrasive content
- Tooth pastes with high abrasive content
- Tooth pastes with minimum abrasive content
- All of the above
21. Which of the following organisms is not implicated in the etiology of periodontal disease ?
22. The component of future TMJ shows development at ?
- 6 weeks
- 10 weeks
- 18 weeks
- 16 weeks
23. An 8 yr old child comes to your clinic with large front teeth having jagged margins, what is the treatment plan for this patient ?
- Smoothen the jagged margins and apply fluoride varnish
- Build up other teeth to large size
- Extraction of big teeth
- Assure him and send him back
24. The preferred route of anesthesia for a child patient are all except ?
Ans: 3 – Submucosal, Rectal and Subcutaneous routes are rarely used in children
25. Alveolar grafting in a patient of cleft palate should ideally be done ?
- Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption
- Before maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
- After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and after cuspid eruption
- After maxillary expansion, crossbite correction and before cuspid eruption
26. The caries of Enamel surface leads to accentuation of ?
- Incremental lines of Retzius
- Imbrication lines of Pickrill
- Wickhams Striae
27. Extracellular polysaccharides formed by mucroorganisms causing caries are formed mainly from which sugar ?
28. In Class 5 cavity preparation direction of Mesio Distal walls depend on ?
- Direction of enamel rods
- Contours of gingiva
- Size of carious lesion
- Location of contact area
29. In cases involving conventional endodontics, the most frequent cause of failure is ?
- External root resorption
- Apical overfilling of the canal
- Inadequate filling of the accessory canals
- Incomplete obliteration of the main canal
30. Most advantageous indication of acid etching is ?
- Decreases micro leakage
- Decreases polymerization shrinkage
- Decreases coefficient of thermal expansion
- Decreases porosity in restorative material
31. Fluoride release from GIC restoration is replaced by ?
- Hydroxyl ion
- Aluminium ion
- Silicate ion
- Carboxylate ion
32. It is essential to lubricate rubber dam before applying it. Which of these is not a suitable lubricant ?
- Shaving cream
- Liquid soap
- Scrub gel
33. Which is the wrong way to apply rubber dam using wingless clamp ?
- Put the clamp on the tooth and then pull the dam over it
- Place the dam on the tooth with fingers, and then position the clamp over it
- Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders over the dam
- Attach the dam over the clamp frame outside the motu, and then put the assembly over the tooth using clamp holders under the dam
34. Mechanism of adhesion of GIC restoration with tooth surface is by means of ?
- Carboxy group
- Chelates with metal ions
- C=C double bond
- Polymer chains
35. Which of the following is the most stable restoration for a GV Black class V unstable erosive lesion ?
- Acid Etch composite
- Resin modified GIC
36. In treating a lateral incisor with periapical abscess and draining sinus, the treatment of choice for the sinus is ?
- No special treatment
- Curettage of sinus
- Use of cautery to eliminate the sinus
37. Magnitude of normal Mandibular Plane angle is ?
38. Y-axis is formed by joining ?
- Sella Gnathion line with Frankfort horizontal plane
- Mandibular plane and Sella Gnathion line
- Another name of Mandibular plane
- Mandibular plane with FH plane
39. In Cephalometrics 5 feet distance is set between ?
- Left ear of the patient and the X-ray Film
- Mid Sagittal plane of the patient and the X-ray film
- Left ear of the patient and the X-ray Source
- Mid Sagittal plane of the patient and the X-ray Source
40. 131 degrees of inter-incisal angle is present in ?
- Teeth are retroclined
- Teeth are proclined
- Teeth are crowded
- Maxillary teeth are retroclined
41. Specificity of Screening test measures ?
- True positive
- False positive
- False negative
- True negative
42. Which of the following statement about ‘Simple Random Sampling’ is true ?
- Every element in the population has an equal probability to be included
- Sampling is based on similar charecteristics
- Suitable for large heterogenous population
- Complete list of items within sampling frame is not required
43. Which of the following statements regarding standard distribution curve is true ?
- mean = 2 median
- mean = median
- mean = variance
- Standard deviation = 2 variance
44. The guidelines according to baby friendly hospital initiative includes all of the following except ?
Mother and infant to be together 24 hours a day
Mother to initiate breast feeding 4 hours after delivery
Giving new born infants no food or drink other than breast milk
Encouraging breast feeding on demand
45. All of the following are approaches to health education except ?
- Provision of incentives
- Service approach
- Regulatory approach
- Health education approach
46. All of the muscles are attached to oblique line of thyroid cartilage except ?
- Superior Constrictor
- Inferior Constrictor
47. Which organ is present posterior to pancreas ?
48. Area that lies immediately lateral to the anterior perforating substance is ?
- Orbital Gyrus
- Optic Chiasma
- Limen Insulae
49. All of the muscles pierce Buccinator muscle except ?
- Parotid Duct
- Molar glands of cheek
- Buccal branch of facial nerve
- Buccal branch of mandibular nerve
50. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is ?
- Raised blood pressure
- Vasodialtion due to local metabloites
- Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
- Increases heart rate
51. Intrinsic factor of castle is secreted by which of the following cells in gastric glands ?
- Chief cells
- Parietal cells
- Enterochromaffin cells
52. Cortical representation of the body in the cerebrum is ?
53. Muscle Spindle detects ?
54. Gall Stone Pain is not referred to ?
- Right Shoulder
- Right Hypochondrium
- Right iliac fossa
55. Bezold-Jarisch Reflex ?
- Teachycardia with hypovolemia
- Bradycardia with hypovolemia
- Tachycardia with hypervolemia
- Bradycardia with hypervolemia
56. In visual conduction, signal is transmitted as ?
57. A patient was diagnosed with isolated increase in LDL. His father and brother had the same disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis ?
- Familial Type III Lipoproteinemia
- Abeta Lipoprooteinemia
- Familial Lipoprotein Lipase deficiency (Type I)
- LDL receptor mutation
58. Which test uses oligomer with single base pair substitution ?
- Error-coded mutation analysis
- None of the above
59. Safe disposal of mercury is ?
- Collect carefully and recycle
- Controlled combustion
- Treatment with chemicals
- Deep burial
60. All are Dimorphic fungi except ?
- Blastomyces Dermatitidis
- Histoplasma Capsulatum
- Penicillium marfenii
61. Gas Gangrene is caused by all except ?
- Cl. Histolyticum
- Cl. Novyi
- Cl. Septicum
- Cl. Sporogenes
62. Culture media of leptospirosis is ?
- Korthoff Media
- Perkin Media
- Tinsdale Media
- Bakers Media
63. Autoinfection is seen with ?
64. Which of the following is Microaerophilic ?
65. Which of the following organelles plays a pivotal role in Apoptosis ?
- Endoplasmic Reticulum
- Golgi Apparatus
66. Marker of Polyposis colon cancer is ?
- BRACA 1
67. All of the following are associated with increased ageing. Except ?
- Increased cross linkages in collagen
- Increased superoxide dismutase
- Increased accumulation of free radicals
- Accumulated mutations in somatic cells
68. Adverse effects of Valproic acid derivative include the following, except ?
- Liver Failure
- Weight Gain
69. Which of the following Cephalosporin does not need dose modifications even in presence of raised level of GFR ?
70. All are true regarding Ifosfamide except ?
- It is a Nitrogen mustard derivative
- Metabolized by cytochrome P-450 enzyme
- Chloracetylaldehyde is the metabolite of ifofusamide
- Less neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide
71. All of the following statements about exanatide are true except ?
- It is a glucagon like peptide 1 (GLP-1) analogue
- It is used for treatment of type-1 diabetes mellitus
- Decreases Glucagon
- It is given Subcutaneously
72. Insulin plus acarbose induced hypoglycemia is treated by ?
73. Hypoglycemia is not caused by ?
74. True about Pioglitazone are all except ?
- Metabolized in Liver CYP3A4
- Selective agonist for nuclear peroxisomes proliperator activated receptor gamma
- It causes transcription of gene for carbohydrate and Fat metabolism in the absence of insulin
- It should be avoided in a patient with cardiovascular disease
75. Which of the following drug is both antiresorptive and bone formative ?
- Strontium Ranelate
76. Cardiovascular complications of HIV infection include all of the following except ?
- Pericardial effusion
- Cardiac Tamponade
- Aortic Aneurysm
77. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) includes all of the following except ?
78. All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition except ?
- Hb < 11.5 gm/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy
- Increased 1-4 year mortality rate
- Birth weight < 2500 gm
- Decreased weight for height
79. Serum Fructosamine can be used in all except ?
- Screening of Diabetes
- Rapid change in DM treatment
- Short term control of DM
- Screening of DM in pregnancy
80.Material which has high compressive strength and low tensile strength is classified with property of ?
81. After Amalgam polishing the outermost surface has crystals arranged flattened to tooth surface. This layer is known as ?
- Beilby layer
- Beillyl layer
- Beibyl layer
- None of the above
82. On X-ray which of the following can be found most accurately ?
- Acute pulpitis
- Periapical granuloma
- Mental foramen
83. Exposure time of RVG in comparison to conventional radiograph is ?
- Atleast 1/5th reduced
84. Marked reduction in amount of dentin, widening of predentin layer, presence of large areas of interglobular dentin and irregular pattern of dentin is seen in ?
- Hypocalcified dentin
- Odonto dysplasia
- Dentin dysplasia
- Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
85. Which of the following is the most common Developmental cyst ?
- Nasopalatine duct cyst / Ant maxillary
- Median mandibular
- Globulomaxillary cyst
- Median palatal cyst
86. Which of the following is the most likely (among them) to turn malignant ?
- Intradermal Nevus
- Junctional Nevus
- Blue Nevus
- Compound Nevus
87. Self healing carcinoma is known as ?
- Benign Melanoma Nevus
88. Natal Teeth are seen in all except ?
- Vander woude syndrome
- Sotos syndrome
- Cleft palate
- Ellis van syndrome