Here is the solved Comed-k 2011 question paper with the correct answers. Almost 30-40% of questions are repeated in every years exam so going through previous papers before the exams will be really helpful.
Comed-k 2012 MDS Solved Question Paper:
1. Infection from the dangerous area of the face spread through one of the following veins ?
- Retromandibular vein
- Superficial temporal vein
- Opthalmic vein
Ans: 4 – Opthalmic vein
2. All of following canal open on the posterior wall of the pterygopalatine fossa except ?
- Greater palatine canal
- Foramen Rotundum
- Pterygoid canal
- Palatovaginal canal
Ans: 1 – Greater palatine canal
3. Hypoglossal nerve supplies all of these muscles except ?
Ans: 3 – Palatoglossus
4. One of the following is motor nerve for occipital belly of occipitofrontalis ?
- Greater auricular
- Lesser occipital
- Third occipital
- Posterior auricular
Ans: 4 – Posterior auricular
5. Contraction in smooth muscles is initiated when calcium binds to ?
Ans: 2 – Calmodulin
6. Daily loss of Iron in a healthy adult per day is ?
- 0.06 mg
- 0.6 mg
- 60 mg
- 600 mg
7. In a nerve, the magnitude of the action potential overshoot is normally a function of the ?
- Magnitude of the stimulus
- Intracellular potassium concentration
- Extracellular sodium concentration
- Resting membrane potential
8. Ultimobronchial body forms ?
- C cells of thyroid gland
- Principal cells of parathyroid gland
- Acidophils of pituitary gland
- Pituicytes of pituitary gland
9. All the following hormones bind to cell surface receptors of the target tissue Except ?
10. Anaphylaxis refers to ?
- Severe reaction following re-injection of protein solutions in a sensitized individual
- Severe reaction following primary injection of protein solutions
- State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
- The severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergies
11. A positive Chvostek’s sign is suggestive of ?
12. Ubiquitin is involved in ?
- Intracellular proteolysis
- Electron transport chain
- Transport of ATP
- Protein Folding
13. Ehrilch Test is done to detect ?
- Bile Salts
14. Plasma ceruloplasmin is a ?
- Alpha 1 globulin
- Alpha 2 globulin
- Beta 1 globulin
- Beta 2 globulin
15. The nitrogen content is 50 gms of a typical dietary protein is most likely to be ?
- 5 g
- 8 g
- 10 g
- 16 g
16. Striae of Retzius ?
- Are not found in permanent teeth
- Represent the daily growth rate of enamel
- Result from temporary constriction of Tomes process
- Have more number of crystals
17. In a dried skull, holes on the lingual aspects of the decidious teeth are called ?
- Volkmann canals
- Canals of Hirschfels and Zuckerkandl
- Haversian canals
- Gubernacular canals
18. The cell type of periodontium that plays a role in pathogenesis as well as healing is ?
- Mast cell
19. Mobility of teeth in carcinoma of Maxillary Sinus is due to involvement by tumour of ?
- Anterior wall of Sinus
- Posterior wall of Sinus
- Roof of the Sinus
- Floor of Sinus
20. Successor of permanent teeth develop from ?
- Buccal extension of Dental Lamina
- Lingual extension of Dental Lamina
- Distal Extension of Dental Lamina
- Main or Parent Dental Lamina
21. Nerve endings of temporomandibular joint, confined to ligaments associated with the joint ?
- Ruffini corpuscles
- Pacini corpuscles
- Golgi tendon organs
- Free nerve endings
22. The maximum rate of eruption, as the tooth cusps reach the surface epithelium is round (Micro meters/day) ?
23. The initial B cells of synovial membrane of temporomandibular joint are ?
- Fibroblast like
- Macrophage like
- Lymphocyte like
- Plasma like
24. Increased levels of Hemoglobin A2 is characteristic of ?
- Sickle cell trait
- Thalassaemia minor
- Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
25. Squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium is induced by defiency of ?
- Vit D
- Vit B
- Vit A
- Vit C
26. Malignant ulcer is differentiated from benign by ?
- Heaping up of margins
- Fibrous scars radiating from crater
- Induration of base
- Clean Base
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding thyroglobulin ?
- It is a specific marker for anaplastic carcinoma
- Elevation after complete therapy suggests recurence in well differentiated thyroid malignancies
- Preoperation elevation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis
- Intraop estimation from thyroid veins is very useful for prognosis
28. In Troisers sign the lymph nodes involved involved are ?
- Right Axillary nodes
- Left Axillary nodes
- Right Supraclavicular nodes
- Left Supraclavicular nodes
29. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa ?
- Produces heat stable enterotoxin
- Causes Shangai fever
- Cannot be destroyed at 55 degrees at 1 hour
- Does not produce any pigment
30. Durck granules are seen in ?
31. Injection abscess due to use of contaminated vaccines occur in infections caused by ?
- M. Kansasii
- M. Ulcerans
- M. chelonae
- M. Smegmatis
32. The most frequent non-sporing anaerobic bacteria isolated from clinical specimens is ?
- Bacteroides Fragilis
- Bacteroides Vulgatus
- Prevotella Melaninogenica
- Fusobacterium nucleatum
33. A full course of immunization against tetanus with 3 doses of tetanus toxid, confers immunity for how many years ?
34. Which is a DNA virus ?
- Hep A virus
- Hep B virus
- Hep C virus
- Hep D virus
35. Among the drugs given below, which is least likely to be implicated in drug induced hepatitis ?
36. Which of the following drugs given below does not act by protease inhibition ?
37. Which among the following is the drug of choice for Clostridium difficile-induced colotis ?
38. During the cell cycle, Colchicine is known to act in ?
- G1 phase
- S phase
- G2 phase
- M phase
39. Which of the following antitubercular drug is Bacteriostatic ?
40.Which among the following is used as an Immunosuppressant ?
41. All of the given drugs are positive inotropes Except ?
42. Which among the following drugs is not used orally ?
43. The materials used to outline the area to be soldered in order to restrict the flow of solder is called ?
44. ADA specification number for gypsum products are described under ?
45. Frozen Slab technique is applicable to ?
- Zinc Phosphate cement
- Glass ionomer cement
- Zinc oxide eugenol cement
- Resin cement
46. pH of which cement remains below 7 even after 1 month after insertion into the cavity ?
- Zinc Phosphate
- Resin cement
- Silicate cement
47. Materials that facilitate removal of impression from cast is ?
- Sodium chloride
48. For accurate interocclusal records the material of choice is ?
- 28-gauge casting wax
- ZOE bite registration paste
- Elastomeric bite registration material
- Base plate wax
49. Electralloy RV is alloy of Gold and ?
50. The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is ?
- Hydrocholoric Acid
- Nitric Acid
- Sulphuric Acid
- Phosphoric Acid
51. The safest method for soaking dental cast is ?
- Placing in saturated solution of calcium sulphate
- Placing in water
- Placing in saturated solution of sodium chloride
- Placing in solution of gypsum slurry
52. The most practical method for avoiding any possible distortion of the wax pattern is ?
- Use of heated instruments during carving of the wax pattern
- Invest the wax pattern immediately
- Swagging the wax pattern in a closed vessel
- Applying finger pressure during cooling of the wax
53. Rushton bodies are seen in ?
- Calcifying Odontogenic cyst
- Gingival cyst of adults
- Gingival cyst of newborn
- Lateral Periodontal cyst
54. Pathogenesis of Diptheria is attributed to ?
55. Sarcoidosis is
- Uncommon in Afro-Carribean
- Less common in smokers
- Seen in temprate climate
- Single system disorders
Ans: B and C both are correct
56. Kveim-Siltzbach test is useful in the diagnosis of ?
- Cat Scratch disease
57. Sinusitis may cause referred pain in ?
- Max ant teeth
- Max post teeth
- Mand Ant teeth
- Mand post teeth
58. Intake of which of the following leads to increased incidence of Dry Socket ?
- Oral Hypoglycemics
- Oral Contraceptives
59. Which among following is not a common feature of trigeminal neuralgia ?
- Usually affecting the middle aged and elderly
- Sharp stabbing pain lasting for seconds
- The most common sites involved are the Mandibular and Maxillary canine areas
- Pain usually crossing the midline of the face
60. Mucocutaneous lesion associated with Neoplasia ?
- Phemphigus vegetans
- Paraneoplastic Phemphigus
- Familial benign Phemphigus
61. Thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction is seen in ?
- Aplastic anemia
- Cancer Chemotherapy
- Acute leukaemia
- Systemic Lupus erythematosus
62. Oral ulceration resembling apthae are encountered in ?
- Gluten enteropathy
- Chronic smokers
- Excess of B-complex
- Antimalarial medication
63. Which of these is not a premalignant condition for oral cancers ?
- Apthous Ulcers
- Submucous Fibrosis
64. Warthin-Finkeldey multinucleated giant cell is diagnostic of ?
65. Freys Syndrome is caused due to the injury of ?
- Lesser occipital nerve
- Auriculotemporal nerve
- Supratrochlear nerve
- Infraorbital nerve
66. Most common Salivary gland tumour arising in the jaw ?
- Pleomorphic adenoma
- Adenoid cystic carcinoma
- Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
- Acinic cell carcinoma
67. Sorbital acts in the prevention of dental caries by ?
- Micro organisms lack the enzymes to metabolize Sorbitol
- Lactic acid cannot be produced
- Fermentation of Sorbitol doesnot occur
- Sorbitol is not a carbohydrate
68. Salivary protein which prevents transmission of HIV virus via saliva is ?
- Secretory IgA
- Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor
- Histidine rich proteins
69. Von Willebrands disease is due to ?
- Deficiency of factor X and Factor IV
- Deficiency of factor XII and Factor IX
- Deficiency of factor VIII and decreased platelet adhesion
- Deficiency of factor X and Factor V
70. Neonatal teeth erupt ?
- At birth
- In first 30 days
- In first week
- In first 2 weeks
71. A 55 yr old female patient who is a denture wearer reported to the dentist. Complains of pain in denture bearing area, on examination inflammation of the denture bearing area which is erythematous in nature more diffuse involving entire denture bearing area, we call this condition as ?
- Epulis Fissuratum
- Traumatic Ulcers
- Denture irritational hyperplasia
- Denture stomatitis
72. Among the different types of denture stomatitis diagnosis of candida associated denture stomatitis is confirmed based on previous question ?
- Based on clinical features
- Based on intensity of erythematous lesion
- By finding mycelia or pseudohyphae in a direct smear or isolation of candida in high numbers
- By examining the existing dentures
73. One of the systemic factors predisposing to candida associated denture stomatitis (irt above question) ?
- Nutritional deficiencies
- Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
74. In the management of candida denture stomatitis the following is used ?
- 2% Chlorhexidine
- Gentian Violet
- Local therapy with nystatin and amphotericin B
75. Candida denture stomatitis is ?
- Inherited autosomal dominant
- Autosomal recessive disorder
- X-linked disease
- A syndrome of unknown cause
76. Multiple impacted teeth are seen in Gardners syndrome may also be seen in ?
- Tricho dento osseous syndrome
- Heriditiary intestinal polyposis
- Cowdens syndrome
- Rubenstein Taybi syndrome
77. A 10 year old patient diagnosed with Downs Syndrome having a mosiacism variety. Which type of head shape is commonly seen ?
78. Often IQ of the Downs syndrome patient will be ?
79. Following dental problems are associated with Downs syndrome ?
Ans: Delayed Shedding of Decidious teeth
80. Downs syndrome is associated with ?
Ans: Congenital Heart lesions
81. A 25 yr old patient reports of a bony bony expansile swelling of the right body of the mandible and mild parasthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multilocular radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next investigation ?
- Excisional Biopsy
- Aspiration Cytology
- CT Scan
- PET bone scan
82. A dirty white aspirate with a protein estimation of <4gm% is suggestive of irt to the above question ?
83. OKC is noted for its ?
Ans: Daughter cysts and high rate or Recurrence
84. Management of OKC involves ?
Ans: Enucleation with peripheral ostectomy
85. A 40 year old woman reports with complaint of burning sensation in mouth. clinical examination reveals lesions containing of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips and gingiva bilaterally. an incisional biopsy is suggestive of Lichen Planus. the whitish striations in Lichen Planus are called ?
- Striae of Retzius
- Wickhams Striae
- Stepladder striations
- Linea Alba buccalis
86. The following are different clinical forms of LP except ?
87. One of the following syndrome is associated with lichen planus ?
Ans: GRINSPAN Syndrome
88. Min amount of tooth demineralization required for radiographic detection of dental caries is ?
- 20 %
- 40 %
- 60 %
- 80 %
89. Compared with Ca Tungstate screens, rare earth screens decrease patient exposure by ?
90. Determinestic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response is ?
- Propotional to the dose
- Determined by the operator
- Depends on the composition of Tissue
- Depends on volume of exposed tissue
91. Multiple pulp stones are seen in which Syndrome?
- Ehlar Danlos
92. Digital image in computerized radiography is made up of ?
- Silver Halide Crystals
93. Following organ is LEAST radiosensitive to the effects of radiation ?
- Bone marrow
94. Sharpened pencil appearance of mandibular condyle radiographically indicates ?
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Infectious arthritis
- Juvenile Arthosis
95. Which of the following interactions does not cause film fog ?
- Coherent scattering
- Transient scattering
- Photoelectric absorption
- Compton Scattering
96. Cervical Burnout is a phenomenon caused by decreased X-ray absorption in region of ?
- Teeth with proximal caries
- Normal teeth
- Teeth with root caries
- Hypoplastic teeth
97. A 35 yr old man with Le fort 3 # complains of blood tinged watery discharge from his nose 2 days after the trauma. CT scan confirms NOE # as well. What clinical features suggest that the discharge is CSF leak ?
- Continuous discharge
- Tramline or Halo rings
- Discharge stops on pressure
- Presence of Transferrin Beta
98. Which investigation is most conformatory for detecting CSF leak ?
- Presence of glucose influid
- Presence of Betal Transferrin
99. The most common complication of CSF Rhinorrhea is ?
- Brain herniation
- Ascending meningitis
- Cavernous sinus thrombosis
100. Aspirate which is creamy white viscoid with the values of total protein less than 5.0 grams/100 ml is suggestive of ?
- Infected Cyst
- Dentigerous cyst
101. Mucous membrane on the buccal aspect of the upper alveolar process is innervated by the buccal nerve and ?
- Sup alveolar nerve
- Mental nerve
- Inf alveolar nerve
- Greater palatine nerve
102. A male patient has a pinpoint oro antral communication, the treatment is ?
- Berger flap
- Palatal flap
- Caldwell procedure
103. Cranifacial dysjunction is seen in ?
- Lefort 3 fracture
- Guerrin’s fracture
- High Lefort 1 fracture
- None of the above
104. Openings of the posterior alveolar canals are seen in ?
- Post maxi surface
- Lat max surface
- Intratemporal surface
- Pterygopalatine fossa
105. A fractured coronoid process of the mandible displaces upwards by the action of which muscle ?
- Lat pterygoid
106. Among the following pain theories, the most accepted theory is ?
- Specific theory
- Pattern theory
- Gate control theory
- Calcium displacement theory
107. All of the following nerves are encountered during submandibular gland resection except ?
- Marginal mandibular
108. Non myelinated axons differ from myelinated ones in that they ?
- More exitable
- Lack nodes of ranvier
- Not capable of regeneration
- Not associated with Schwann cells
109. Haversion system (osteons) are found primarly in ?
- Spongy bone
- Alveolar bone proper